Monday, August 25, 2014

Bible Question on Baptism for the Dead, 1 Corinthians 15:29

When we come across a passage within the Bible that is difficult to interpret or seemingly means something that contradicts another plain teaching of scripture, we must look at it through our understanding of the plain teaching of scriptures. Many choose to interpret the difficult passage first and then take perfectly plain scriptures and twist them to fit their interpretation of the difficult passage. Such we must not do, for such is handling the word of God incorrectly. We read in 2 Peter 3:16 the words of Peter who describes some of Paul’s epistles. He says, “As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.” We must make sure that we do not wrest the scriptures to our own destruction.
So with those things in mind, we come to 1 Corinthians 15:29. “Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? Why are they then baptized for the dead?” The context of this particular passage is that of Paul’s proving to the Corinthians that the resurrection is going to happen. There were some in that day who were teaching that there was no resurrection (1 Corinthians 15:12). The Sadducees believed this too (Matthew 22:23). Some were teaching that the resurrection had passed (2 Tim. 2:18). Paul, however, was teaching that the resurrection was still coming and he used every available means to prove this to those in Corinth. So whatever this phrase means–that is, whatever the phrase “baptism for the dead” means–its significance is that the resurrection is still coming.
This phrase does not mean what those of the Mormon faith believe that it means. Mormons believe that one may be baptized for someone who is dead who was not a Mormon, and that person will then have the opportunity, after death, to accept the gospel. The long and short of this teaching is that you get a second chance to be saved after you die. This doctrine just does not mesh with other clear teaching that is within the scriptures. We read in Hebrews 9:27, “And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment.” In Luke 16:24 we read, that the rich man wanted Lazarus to come cool his tongue. Abraham replied, “And beside all this, between us and you there is a great gulf fixed: so that they which would pass from hence to you cannot; neither can they pass to us, that would come from thence” (Luke 16:26). The rich man knew that there was no escape because he then asked that Abraham send someone so that his brothers would escape this place. Jesus said in John 9:4 “I must work the works of him that sent me, while it is day: the night cometh, when no man can work.” The night when no man can work is after death. There are no more works that a person can do to affect one’s salvation after death. Perhaps a statement made by Isaiah makes this quite plain. He says, “Behold, for peace I had great bitterness: but thou hast in love to my soul delivered it from the pit of corruption: for thou hast cast all my sins behind thy back. For the grave cannot praise thee, death can not celebrate thee: they that go down into the pit cannot hope for thy truth. The living, the living, he shall praise thee, as I do this day: the father to the children shall make known thy truth” (Isaiah 38:17-19). Isaiah makes it clear that the time for forgiveness of sins is now. The time to be delivered from the pit of corruption is while one is living. Once one has died and is lost, there is no more hope for truth. The living are the ones who have the obligation to make known God’s truth. Paul says, “For he saith, I have heard thee in a time accepted, and in the day of salvation have I succored thee: behold, now is the accepted time; behold, now is the day of salvation” (2 Corinthians 6:2). Today is the day of the living. Today is the day of salvation.
So what does the phrase “baptism for the dead” mean? To be honest, I am not sure that I know what it means. There have been many different suggestions. Some have suggested that it refers to Christian baptism. These suggest that the phrase “the dead” refers to those who have died to sin and are being made alive in Christ. When they do this, they affirm the resurrection of Christ according to Romans 6:1-11. In this understanding, “the dead” is actually short hand for “the resurrection of the dead.” So that it would be baptism for the resurrection of the dead, i.e. in order to obtain the resurrection of the dead.
Others have suggested that Paul is referring to this group of people who are teaching that there is no resurrection for the dead implying some kind of self-contradiction among their own teaching. In other words, they were teaching that there was no resurrection, but they were practicing “baptism for the dead,” i.e. a vicarious baptism for those who had already died without being baptized. This, however, implied a resurrection because baptism is the form of the death, burial and resurrection of Christ. Those who hold this view say that Paul is not giving an endorsement to the doctrine, but merely stating that if one believed it, then it would imply that their doctrine of no resurrection is false.
Yet another interpretation states that those who had come to accept Christian baptism did so due to the influence of the faithful dead over the many years prior to their baptism. In this sense, they are being baptized for, that is, on account of, the dead who came before them. So if they were being baptized on account of the dead, then they should recognize that they would one day be raised. Finally, one view says that we have the punctuation wrong in the translation. Instead of reading as we would normally read, this view opts for the reading, “Else what shall they do that are baptized? If the dead are not raised at all, (baptism) is for the dead (spiritually). Why are they then baptized for the dead?” This view sees the phrase “the dead” as referring to people who are spiritually dead and thus baptism has no effect for them. I.E. if there is no resurrection, then baptism doesn’t take us out of death and into life, it just leaves us in a state of spiritual death and does nothing for us. We are merely being baptized to become dead. I don’t believe that I can say for certain that I know what this phrase means. I do know, however, that it does not endorse some type of proxy baptism for those who have died un-repented.

Source: http://gewatkins.net/please-explain-1-corinthians-1529-what-does-the-reference-to-baptism-of-the-dead-mean/

Is baptism essential for salvation?

Is baptism essential for salvation? 
That baptism is essential to one’s salvation becomes very apparent as you begin to study with an open mind the various passages in the New Testament on baptism. 
By baptism: 
(1) we are saved (Mark 16:16; Titus 3:5; 1 Peter 3:21), 
(2) we are born again and enter the kingdom (John 3:5), 
(3) we are forgiven of sins (Acts 2:38), 
(4) we have our sins washed away (Acts 22:16), 
(5) we contact the blood of Christ and are placed into Christ (Romans 6:3-4), 
(6) we are added to the one body (1 Corinthians 12:13), and 
(7) we put on Christ (Galatians 3:27).

Since we are to be baptized into Christ (Romans 6:3-4; Galatians 3:27), noticing what is found in Christ is very revealing in proving the essentiality of baptism. 

Notice what is found in Christ: 
(1) salvation (2 Timothy 2:10; Acts 4:12), 
(2) all spiritual blessings (Ephesians 1:3), 
(3) redemption and forgiveness (Ephesians 1:7), 
(4) no condemnation (Romans 8:1), 
(5) grace (2 Timothy 2:1), 
(6) eternal life (1 John 5:11), 
(7) fullness (Colossians 2:10) and 
(8) all the spiritual promises of God (2 Corinthians 1:20). How can anyone deny the essentiality of baptism?!

Who is a proper candidate for baptism? 
The one being baptized must have been taught and must have learned the things taught. Jesus said to His apostles they were to “make disciples” (ASV) before baptizing (Matthew 28:19), and this can only be done through teaching. The one being baptized must gladly receive the word (Acts 2:41). One who is baptized just to please someone else is not a scriptural candidate for baptism. The one being baptized must be a believer (Acts 8:36-37; Mark 16:16). The one being baptized mustrepent of his sins — give up the old life of sin (Acts 2:38). Paul gave evidence of his repentance (Acts 9:9-11) before he was told to be baptized (Acts 22:16). Also, to be a scriptural candidate for baptism, one must confess the name of Christ (Acts 8:37; Romans 10:8-10).

What is the proper mode of baptism? 
The word “baptize” in our English Bibles comes from the Greek word BAPTIZO. “Baptize” is a transliteration of the Greek word. A proper translation of BAPTIZO would be immerse. Well known Greek works such as Thayers Greek-Lexicon of the New Testament, An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words by W.E. Vine, and Strongs Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible all agree that BAPTIZO means to dip, plunge, or immerse. It is enlightening to note that the words sprinkle and pour have their own separate Greek words as is clearly seen when looking at Leviticus 14:15-16 in the Septuagint Version of the Old Testament. If God wanted pouring He would have used EPICHEEL or if He would have wanted sprinkling He would have used RANEI. But God wanted immersion so He used BAPTIZO, “for God is not a God of confusion” (1 Corinthians 14:33).

Furthermore, the Bible describes “baptism” as being a burial. Compare Romans 6:4. Even a little child understands that a burial is a complete covering. When a child asks his dad to bury his dead pet, he would expect nothing less than a complete covering of that pet. To be baptized is to be completely dipped, plunged or immersed in water.

A careful study of Acts 8:36-39 reveals that baptizing requires coming to the water, a going into the water, the actual baptism, and then, a coming up out of the water. Philip would not have gone through all of this with the eunuch unless baptism was an immersion. When we add the fact “much water” is needed to baptize (Jn. 3:23), we can easily see and rightfully conclude that baptism is an immersion. One must be immersed in water for the remission of sins to be scripturally baptized.

What about denominational baptisms, are they pleasing to God? 
First of all, teachings relative to denominational baptisms are wrong. Generally, this “baptism” is not a submission to the Lord, but a submission to their own will. The religious world has rejected the Lord’s reason for baptism and have come up with their own reasons. One cannot be taught wrong and practice right, and neither can one believe wrong and obey right. One must be conscious of the Lord’s commands concerning baptism.

Some think they have obeyed God when in reality they have not. A good example of this is king Saul. Saul was instructed by Jehovah to “smite Amalek, and utterly destroy all they have, and spare them not, but slay both man and woman, infant and suckling, ox and sheep, camel and ass” (1 Samuel 15:3). But Saul, you will remember, did not do as Jehovah had commanded. Saul smote Amalek, but spared king Agag and everything that was pleasing to him. Notice how Saul views his disobedience when speaking to Samuel, “Blessed be thou of Jehovah: I have performed the commandments of Jehovah” (1 Samuel 10:13). Like Saul, many are disobeying God’s commands concerning baptism, and yet, still think they are obeying God. What was said of Saul still holds true today. “Hath Jehovah as great delight in burnt offerings and sacrifices, as obeying the voice of Jehovah? Behold, to obey is better than sacrifices, and to harken than the fat of rams” (1 Samuel 15:22).

For God to accept any baptism, it must be done exactly as He has prescribed! One must be a penitent believer and be immersed in water for the remission of sins. Jesus said, “He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that disbelieveth shall be condemned” (Mk. 16:16).

COMMENTS
James Gerarden says:
July 16, 2014 at 9:45 pm
How do you answer to Romans 10:9? Also, how do you personally deal with the instances in which a person can’t be baptized? I am wondering these things because I want to be able to answer people’s questions about this matter of baptism. Please respond to this. Thank you in advance for your help.

REPLY
G. E. Watkins says:
July 16, 2014 at 10:33 pm

Glad to have you here. With regard to Rom. 10:9 I would have to say from experience that the one you would be answering is simply going to move to one of a dozen or more passages that deal with salvation and don’t mention baptism. It likely won’t matter when you mention that the confession mentioned is the same confession mentioned in the account of the Ethiopian nobleman that was given just before his baptism (Acts 8:37). It may not even matter that the passage doesn’t mention repentance either and yet the essentially of repentance is clear (Acts 2:38; Luke 13:3, 5).

What DOES matter is positive statements in the scriptures that baptism is for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38) that it washes away sins (Acts 22:16) and that it saves (1 Pet. 3:21).

The answer to the second part is this, ‘That which proves too much proves nothing.’ Ask what happens if a person doesn’t have the opportunity to believe or to pray the “sinner’s prayer” (as some practice).
Let me know if I need to expand on these things.

Source: http://gewatkins.net/baptism-essential-for-salvation

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